Does anyone know why (motivating reasons) Lilly entitled his treatise "CHRISTIAN Astrology"? Is there any historical indication that in doing so he was attempting to distance astrology from Greek or Islamic ("Arabic") connections? Please note that this is an earnest question.

Lilly dedicates his work to Bulstrode Whitlock and at the end of his dedicatory epistle he writes

Sir, I hope you shall have no dishonour to patronise the ensuing work, wherein I lay down the whole natural grounds of the art in a fit method; that thereby I may undeceive those, who misled by some peddling divines, have upon no better credit than their bare words, conceived astrology to consist upon diabolical principles; a most scandalous untruth foisted into both the nobility and gentry?s apprehension to deter them from this study, and to reserve it entire unto their own selves.

By ?peddling divines? he means ?petty-minded priests?. There are several barbed references to the corruptibility of priests in Christian Astrology and in his autobiography he also describes ?the malevolent barking of Presbyterian ministers in their weekly sermons [against astrology], reviling the professors thereof, and myself particularly by name?.

I think in those references you see everything you need to know about Lilly?s motivation to call his work ?Christian?. It was his desire to respond to these criticisms, and to reaffirm the honourable principles of astrology, nothing at all to do with distancing himself from Arabian teachings IMO. He seems quite comfortable in the knowledge that he has himself learned from Arabian sources and shows no hesitancy to acknowledge their influence when he translates their passages of text.

Thank you for the information. I had noticed in Kepler, Gadbury, and some others of the time, references to certain astrological methods and concepts as "Arabian sorcery", so I wondered if Lilly too harbored any similar prejudices. Your information has cleared up this question.